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ECS Test 9

Mock Tests > ECS Test 9

You have 30 minutes to answer 50 multiple choice ECS Test questions. You need 43 out of 50 to pass. You can review your answer after each question or wait until the end of the test for your result. Good luck!

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1. Which of the following should you do on site in the interest of sustainability? Give one answer
A Bury waste material
B Comply with site instructions on handling waste materials
C Pour waste liquids down a drain off-site
D Run plant and equipment when they are not needed
Correct Answer: B Comply with site instructions on handling waste materials
Explanation: Your actions will help your company, and others working on site, to achieve more sustainable work practices, such as waste recovery.
2. Do individuals have any responsibility for minimising the amount of waste created on site? Give one answer
A No, it's the responsibility of the client
B Only during site clean-up, at the end of the project
C Only if asbestos removal is being carried out
D Yes, everyone on site has this responsibility
Correct Answer: D Yes, everyone on site has this responsibility
Explanation: Your actions will help your company, and others on site, to procure sensibly and to organise the job so that materials and substances are not wasted. Waste reduction is the best option when trying to manage site waste.
3. If you discover a hole or gap in a fire rated wall or floor that has not been fire-stopped, what should you do? Give one answer
A Cover the hole or gap with insulating tape
B Ignore it unless it is causing a draught
C Report it to your supervisor without delay
D Use decorators' sealant to fill the gap
Correct Answer: C Report it to your supervisor without delay
Explanation: Supervisors need to be made aware of any observed inadequacies in fire-stopping - which can undermine fire precautions catastrophically during the construction of buildings and on their completion. Only a limited range of products are suitable and they must be correctly applied to provide the required degree of fire-stopping.
4. Which of the following is not a suitable means of isolating a circuit? Give one answer
A Fitting a padlocked circuit breaker lockout
B Padlocking the isolating switch
C Putting insulating tape over the circuit breaker
D Removing a fuse and locking the distribution board
Correct Answer: C Putting insulating tape over the circuit breaker
Explanation: The isolating device should be switched off or the fuse removed. The switch, circuit breaker or enclosure should then be locked and the key removed. A notice or label should also be posted to warn that someone is working on the circuit or apparatus.
5. The use of a multi-lock hasp with the appropriate number of padlocks is a recommended method of safe isolation where: Give one answer
A Individual circuit breaker locking off devices are not available
B Individual circuit breakers are not identified at the distribution board
C More than one person will be working on circuits supplied from the same distribution board
D You know the health and safety inspector is in the area
Correct Answer: C More than one person will be working on circuits supplied from the same distribution board
Explanation: A multi-lock hasp can be used to prevent operation of the isolator until such time that all persons working on the electrical installation have completed their work and removed their padlocks from the hasp.
6. Who needs to understand relevant environmental risks on a construction site? Give one answer
A Everyone working on the site
B Only the environmental clerk of works
C Only the principal contractor
D Only the subcontractors
Correct Answer: A Everyone working on the site
Explanation: The actions of everyone on site determine how well the risks to the environment (such as water pollution, or creating a local nuisance) are controlled.
7. Where mains voltage is used to supply portable equipment on a construction site, what additional protection is required? Give one answer
A Cable avoidance tool
B Residual current device (RCD)
C Step-down generator
D Step-down transformer
Correct Answer: B Residual current device (RCD)
Explanation: Reduced low voltage systems (e.g. 110 volt centre point earthed) are strongly preferred in such circumstances. Where only mains voltage (230 V) equipment is available, however, a 30 mA RCD will give additional protection against fatal electric shock.
8. Which of the following statements is true with regard to the dangers of electricity? Give one answer
A Electricity is dangerous at any time because you cannot tell by looking at a cable whether or not it is live
B Electricity is only dangerous if you are not wearing wellington boots
C Electricity is only dangerous in wet weather
D Electricity is perfectly safe so long as you wear cotton gloves
Correct Answer: A Electricity is dangerous at any time because you cannot tell by looking at a cable whether or not it is live
Explanation: The features which make electricity so dangerous are that you cannot see, hear or smell it. It can give you a very unpleasant surprise. Always assume that cables are live.
9. What is the most serious effect that electric shock can have if you come into contact with a live part? Give one answer
A The electric current can cause a slight tingling in the fingers
B The electric current can cause burn marks on the fingers
C The electric current can cause the finger muscles to twitch
D The electric current can cause the heart to stop, resulting in death
Correct Answer: D The electric current can cause the heart to stop, resulting in death
Explanation: Contact with live electrical parts can be fatal. If you do not know otherwise, always assume that electrical parts are live.
10. An electrical Permit to Work is primarily a statement that: Give one answer
A Certain instructions need to be followed
B Someone else has taken responsibility for the work
C The circuit or equipment has been isolated and is safe to work on
D The circuit or equipment is live
Correct Answer: C The circuit or equipment has been isolated and is safe to work on
Explanation: Permits to work describe the procedures that prevent a major hazard, such as electricity or moving machinery, from causing harm, usually by isolation to effectively ensure (in the case of electricity) 'dead' working with no chance of it going 'live'.
11. When exposing underground power cables, which method of excavation should you use? Give one answer
A A 360 degree excavator with rubber tyres
B A kango hammer
C A pickaxe
D Hand digging
Correct Answer: D Hand digging
Explanation: Hand-held power tools and mechanical excavators should not be used too close to underground services and hand digging should be carried out with care.
12. To prove a circuit or equipment is dead after isolation what is the FIRST activity in the sequence of events? Give one answer
A Check between line and earth
B Check between line and neutral
C Check that the voltage detector is working on a proving device, known live source or in- built test feature
D Make sure equipment is not working
Correct Answer: C Check that the voltage detector is working on a proving device, known live source or in- built test feature
Explanation: This will prove that that the voltage detector (such as a two-pole voltage detector or proprietary test lamp) is working, i.e. indicating voltage.
13. Hand and power tools must be: Give one answer
A In the company's colours
B Made available when needed
C Suitable for the task and regularly inspected
D The best that you can buy
Correct Answer: C Suitable for the task and regularly inspected
Explanation: Tools must not create a risk to the user or others. This means they must be suitable and kept in good condition. This requires inspection before use.
14. If an extension cable is to be run across a site road, what action should you take? Give one answer
A Don't do anything to protect the cable
B Lay the cable over wooden boards
C Place a rubber protection ramp over it and put up a sign stating 'Ramp Ahead'
D Throw wooden boards over it
Correct Answer: C Place a rubber protection ramp over it and put up a sign stating 'Ramp Ahead'
Explanation: It is essential that the cable is protected from damage caused by passing traffic. A sign will warn road traffic of the ramp.
15. What must be considered first when planning to carry out work in a confined space? Give one answer
A Can the work be done from the outside
B Has sufficient manpower been allocated
C Has the job been priced properly
D Have the correct tools been arranged
Correct Answer: A Can the work be done from the outside
Explanation: Working outside will remove the risks of working in the confined space.
16. What is the minimum height of the top guard-rail of a scaffold above the edge from which someone is liable to fall? Give one answer
A 2 metres
B 470mm
C 910mm
D 950mm
Correct Answer: D 950mm
Explanation: This is a requirement of the Work at Height Regulations 2005.
17. When working on fragile roofs: Give one answer
A As long as you avoid any fragile areas it is safe
B Crawling boards should always be used
C It is safe to walk on the purlins
D Walk straight across the roof to where you need to get to
Correct Answer: B Crawling boards should always be used
Explanation: Fragile roofs must be made safe to work on, before work commences.
18. Under what circumstances do the Work at Height Regulations permit a stepladder to be used on site? Give one answer
A At any time
B Never - stepladders are banned
C Only when a risk assessment shows that safer alternatives have been ruled out and the task is of low risk and of short duration
D Provided you can't fall 2 metres or more
Correct Answer: C Only when a risk assessment shows that safer alternatives have been ruled out and the task is of low risk and of short duration
Explanation: The WAH Regulations have not banned the use of ladders or stepladders, but they should be used sensibly.
19. Prior to moving a mobile tower scaffold, the platform height should reduced to a maximum of: Give one answer
A 2 metres
B 3 metres
C 4 metres
D 5 metres
Correct Answer: C 4 metres
Explanation: This figure is quoted in guidance published by the HSE and PASMA. Checks should also be made that there are no obstructions overhead, the ground is firm, level and free from potholes, it is not too windy and there are no people or materials on the tower.
20. Who should operate plant and equipment on site? Give one answer
A An employee holding a full driving license
B Any experienced employee
C Only people over 18 years of age
D Trained and authorised employees only
Correct Answer: D Trained and authorised employees only
Explanation: Never operate plant or equipment unless you have been trained and are authorised to do so.
21. Any damaged equipment must be: Give one answer
A Labelled as
B Locked up so no one can use it
C Reported to your supervisor
D Thrown away immediately
Correct Answer: C Reported to your supervisor
Explanation: It is essential that supervisors are aware of faulty or damaged equipment.
22. Ladders should not be painted because: Give one answer
A Regular repainting will be necessary
B The paint may cover a defect or damaged part of the ladder
C The paint may not be suitable on metal parts of the ladder
D The paint will make them slippery to use
Correct Answer: B The paint may cover a defect or damaged part of the ladder
23. All new fire extinguishers are coloured red or of bright self-coloured metal. How do you know the difference between types? Give one answer
A A different colour panel or band is on the body of the extinguishers
B During site induction, you will be told where the different types of extinguishers are
C The type of extinguisher is written on a sign next to it
D The weight and shape of the extinguisher
Correct Answer: A A different colour panel or band is on the body of the extinguishers
Explanation: Different coloured bands show extinguisher types e.g. black for CO2 and blue for dry powder.
24. A black-labelled fire extinguisher contains: Give one answer
A Carbon dioxide
B Dry powder
C Foam
D Water
Correct Answer: A Carbon dioxide
25. Which fire extinguisher should not be used on flammable liquid fires? Give one answer
A Carbon dioxide
B Foam
C Powder
D Water
Correct Answer: D Water
Explanation: Flammable liquids spread if attacked by water extinguishers.
26. When discharging carbon dioxide fire extinguishers, the nozzle: Give one answer
A Becomes very cold
B Becomes very hot
C Becomes warm
D Doesn't change temperature
Correct Answer: A Becomes very cold
Explanation: The expansion of CO2 gas coming out of the nozzle causes rapid cooling.
27. For fires involving spilled petrol, which types of fire extinguisher could you use? Give one answer
A Foam, carbon dioxide or dry powder
B Water, carbon dioxide or dry powder
C Water, carbon dioxide or foam
D Water, foam or dry powder
Correct Answer: A Foam, carbon dioxide or dry powder
Explanation: Flammable liquids, such as petrol, spread if attacked by water extinguishers.
28. Which of the following items should not be in a first- aid box? Give one answer
A Disposable gloves
B Pain killers
C Safety pins
D Triangular bandages
Correct Answer: B Pain killers
Explanation: Drugs must not be kept in a first aid box (Health and Safety guidance note INDG 214).
29. An employee has a fall and is obviously unconscious. What is the FIRST thing you should do? Give one answer
A Find out if there were any witnesses
B Put them in the recovery position
C Send someone for the first-aider
D Try to protect them from any further injury
Correct Answer: C Send someone for the first-aider
Explanation: Competent first-aid treatment is essential, and should be summoned immediately.
30. In an on-site emergency, which of the following must a first-aider NOT do? Give one answer
A Control bleeding
B Give medicines to patients without authorization
C Give resuscitation
D Treat an unconscious patient
Correct Answer: B Give medicines to patients without authorization
Explanation: First-aid is concerned with preserving life and limb, and first-aiders are not trained to dispense medical treatments.
31. Which of the following is one of the recommended means of protecting your hearing? Give one answer
A Cotton wool pads
B Ear defenders
C Rolled tissue paper
D Soft cloth pads
Correct Answer: B Ear defenders
Explanation: The others are not considered to be suitable types of hearing protection.
32. How would you recognise a hazardous substance? Give one answer
A By a symbol on the container
B By its smell
C It will be in a suitable container
D The colour of the label on the container
Correct Answer: A By a symbol on the container
Explanation: A supplier of a packaged hazardous substance must include a label on the packaging incorporating one or more hazard symbols alerting users to the dangers posed by the chemical.
33. If you have been handling lead, how is it most likely to get into your blood stream? Give one answer
A By not reporting the matter to the HSE
B By not using the correct safety footwear
C By not washing your hands before eating
D By not wearing safety goggles
Correct Answer: C By not washing your hands before eating
Explanation: The route into the body is ingestion, normally from lead contamination on the hands.
34. What is the most important item of personal protective equipment (PPE) when working on or near a highway? Give one answer
A Hard hat
B High visibility vest
C Safety footwear
D Waterproof clothing
Correct Answer: B High visibility vest
Explanation: The other PPE may also be required.
35. When must you wear all personal protective equipment (PPE) provided by your employer? Give one answer
A As instructed by your employer
B Only if it fits
C Only when you need to
D When you want to
Correct Answer: A As instructed by your employer
Explanation: Under the PPE at Work Regulations 1992, employees must wear PPE as instructed.
36. When should you wear safety footwear on site? Give one answer
A Only if the site conditions are wet
B Only when working on scaffolds
C Only when working outdoors
D When there is a risk of a foot injury
Correct Answer: D When there is a risk of a foot injury
Explanation: Suitable safety footwear should be worn if there is a risk of injury from objects falling onto the foot or sharp objects, such as nails, penetrating the sole.
37. Which one of the following must apply to any hard hat provided? Give one answer
A It is CE - marked
B It is less than 1 year old
C It is less than 2 years old
D It is less than 5 years old
Correct Answer: A It is CE - marked
Explanation: All PPE should be CE - marked, indicating that it meets the basic health and safety requirements.
38. Which of the following MUST be recorded in an accident book after you have had an accident? Give one answer
A Your National Insurance number
B Your date of birth
C Your occupation
D Your phone number
Correct Answer: C Your occupation
Explanation: The information to be entered in an accident book (BI510) includes when and where the accident happened, the name, address and occupation of the person who had the accident and details of how the accident happened and the injuries suffered.
39. Accidents causing any injury should always be recorded in: Give one answer
A The main contractor's diary
B The site engineer's day book
C Your employer's accident recording system
D Your personal diary
Correct Answer: C Your employer's accident recording system
Explanation: All accidents should be recorded in the accident book (BI 510).
40. Which one of the following accounts for most accidents each year on construction sites? Give one answer
A Electrocution
B Slips, trips and falls
C Strikes by moving vehicles
D Trench collapses
Correct Answer: B Slips, trips and falls
Explanation: HSE statistics show clearly that there are more slips, trips and falls than any other type of accident on site.
41. A manual handling operation is defined as which one of the following? Give one answer
A Automated effort
B Human effort
C Mechanised and human effort
D Mechanised effort
Correct Answer: B Human effort
Explanation: Manual handling covers human effort only.
42. Which of the following is advisable when lifting a load manually? Give one answer
A Bend the knees, keep the back as straight as possible, use power of legs
B Bend the knees, keep the back straight, use power of back
C Keep legs and back straight, use power of legs
D Keep legs straight, bend back, use power of legs
Correct Answer: A Bend the knees, keep the back as straight as possible, use power of legs
Explanation: Stooping can increase the stress on the lower back. However, stooping slightly may be preferable to adopting a squatting posture, which can place excessive loads on knees and hips.
43. What is the recommended limit for a compact load that can be safely carried by a fit, male worker? Give one answer
A 20kg
B 25kg
C 40kg
D 50kg
Correct Answer: B 25kg
Explanation: This figure is in HSE guidance, and relates to lifting and lowering at elbow height.
44. If there is a risk of injury from moving loads what should you think about? Give one answer
A Advising your supervisor
B Carrying it anyway
C Dragging it all the way
D Getting someone to assist you over the distance
Correct Answer: A Advising your supervisor
Explanation: This is a requirement of the Manual Handling Operations regulations 1992.
45. Who of the following would you expect to be responsible for managing health and safety on site? Give one answer
A Foreman
B HSE Inspector
C Main sub-contractor
D Your employer
Correct Answer: D Your employer
Explanation: The responsibility for management of health and safety at work rests with the employer.
46. In the context of a risk assessment, what do you understand by the term risk? Give one answer
A An unsafe act or condition
B Any work activity that can be described as dangerous
C Something with the potential to cause injury
D The likelihood that harm from a particular hazard will occur
Correct Answer: D The likelihood that harm from a particular hazard will occur
Explanation: Hazard and risk are not the same. Risk reflects the chance of being harmed by a hazard
47. What must be done before any work begins? Give one answer
A Assessment of risk
B Emergency plan
C Geological survey
D Soil assessment
Correct Answer: A Assessment of risk
Explanation: This is a legal requirement of the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations.
48. Employers have to produce a written Health and Safety Policy statement when: Give one answer
A A contract commences
B The HSE notifies them
C The safety representative requests it
D They employ five people or more
Correct Answer: D They employ five people or more
Explanation: This is a specific requirement of the Health and Safety at Work Act.
49. What do the letters HSE stand for? Give one answer
A Health and Safety Examiner
B Health and Safety Executive
C Health and Safety Exercise
D Highly Safe Electrician
Correct Answer: B Health and Safety Executive
Explanation: The Health and Safety Executive was established under the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974.
50. The Health and Safety at Work Act requires employers to provide what for their employees? Give one answer
A A safe place of work
B Adequate rest periods
C Payment for work done
D Suitable transport to work
Correct Answer: A A safe place of work
Explanation: This is a specific requirement of Section 2 of the Health and Safety at Work Act.